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<blockquote data-quote="Throwaway9" data-source="post: 5457680" data-attributes="member: 103247">Can you explain why it would be $578.70/mo ($6,936/yr) more and not $694.42/mo ($8,333/year) more? All of the materials on the Pay Mix Update indicate that all of the current OIP incentive will be incorporated into the new base salary, based on Class A holdings on Dec 1. And the current OIP incentive is 3% of a Manager&#039;s Class A stock holdings on 12/1/22, up to a maximum of one month&#039;s salary (per the Q&amp;A document at Upsers.com).So both Managers will get an ~11% raise in base salary. However, the Manager who owns no Class A shares on 12/1/22 will get no more money reallocated to their base salary on 1/1/23. However, Managers who own Class A shares on 12/1/22 should get an additional 3% of the 2022 average value of those shares, up to one month&#039;s salary maximum. So $280,000 x 3% = $8,400 and the max OIP payout for a Manager who makes $100,000/yr is $8,333. So shouldn&#039;t that Manager receive $8,333/yr ($694.42/mo) more on their base salary versus a $100k/yr Manager who owns no stock? I&#039;m mainly wondering what formula you&#039;re using to arrive at your number and why it&#039;s different than mine. Can you show your math to help me understand?</blockquote>

[QUOTE="Throwaway9, post: 5457680, member: 103247"] Can you explain why it would be $578.70/mo ($6,936/yr) more and not $694.42/mo ($8,333/year) more? All of the materials on the Pay Mix Update indicate that all of the current OIP incentive will be incorporated into the new base salary, based on Class A holdings on Dec 1. And the current OIP incentive is 3% of a Manager's Class A stock holdings on 12/1/22, up to a maximum of one month's salary (per the Q&A document at Upsers.com). So both Managers will get an ~11% raise in base salary. However, the Manager who owns no Class A shares on 12/1/22 will get no more money reallocated to their base salary on 1/1/23. However, Managers who own Class A shares on 12/1/22 should get an additional 3% of the 2022 average value of those shares, up to one month's salary maximum. So $280,000 x 3% = $8,400 and the max OIP payout for a Manager who makes $100,000/yr is $8,333. So shouldn't that Manager receive $8,333/yr ($694.42/mo) more on their base salary versus a $100k/yr Manager who owns no stock? I'm mainly wondering what formula you're using to arrive at your number and why it's different than mine. Can you show your math to help me understand? [/QUOTE]

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