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From The Chairman: Peak Strategy 2014
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<blockquote data-quote="Dex01" data-source="post: 1471703" data-attributes="member: 43242"><p>Um, no, but there is a substantial difference between correlation and causation. </p><p></p><p></p><p></p><p>For whom, exactly?</p><p></p><p></p><p></p><p>Short answer no, but it is somewhat of a moot point considering a company that is failing due to issues directly relating to worker productivity would not remain in existence for very long. There are several other reasons for this answer, but the weekend is fully upon us, and time really is the most precious commodity on the face of the earth. Before I go, here's a bit of historical background for you (figures and dates are approximate). Between 1973 - 2004 worker productivity went up by around 86 percent. If i'm not mistaken, and I rarely am, US workers participated in approximately 4 percent of those gains. Within that historical context, do you really think your question is relevant?</p></blockquote><p></p>
[QUOTE="Dex01, post: 1471703, member: 43242"] Um, no, but there is a substantial difference between correlation and causation. For whom, exactly? Short answer no, but it is somewhat of a moot point considering a company that is failing due to issues directly relating to worker productivity would not remain in existence for very long. There are several other reasons for this answer, but the weekend is fully upon us, and time really is the most precious commodity on the face of the earth. Before I go, here's a bit of historical background for you (figures and dates are approximate). Between 1973 - 2004 worker productivity went up by around 86 percent. If i'm not mistaken, and I rarely am, US workers participated in approximately 4 percent of those gains. Within that historical context, do you really think your question is relevant? [/QUOTE]
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