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<blockquote data-quote="soberups" data-source="post: 988054" data-attributes="member: 14668"><p>--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------</p><p>The 2nd Amendment reads....</p><p></p><p>"A well regulated Militia, being necessary to the security of a free State, the right of <strong>the people</strong> to keep and bear Arms, shall not be infringed."</p><p></p><p>-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------</p><p>The standard liberal argument against the <em>individual</em> right to gun ownership has always been to say that the intent of the Amendment was to allow <em>Militias</em> to keep and bear arms.</p><p></p><p>If this were the case....then why doesn't the Amendment simply say...."the right of the <em>Militias</em> to keep and bear arms shall not be infringed."?</p><p></p><p>It <em>doesnt say</em> that. It says <strong>the people</strong>. The Founding Fathers distrusted standing armies and oppressive tyrannical governments, and believed that <strong>the people </strong>had the right to be armed for their own defense and the defense of the State. <strong>The people </strong>were (and still are) the militia.</p><p></p><p>The Constitution is full of checks and balances. One of the most important of those checks and balances....is an armed populace.</p></blockquote><p></p>
[QUOTE="soberups, post: 988054, member: 14668"] -------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- The 2nd Amendment reads.... "A well regulated Militia, being necessary to the security of a free State, the right of [B]the people[/B] to keep and bear Arms, shall not be infringed." ------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- The standard liberal argument against the [I]individual[/I] right to gun ownership has always been to say that the intent of the Amendment was to allow [I]Militias[/I] to keep and bear arms. If this were the case....then why doesn't the Amendment simply say...."the right of the [I]Militias[/I] to keep and bear arms shall not be infringed."? It [I]doesnt say[/I] that. It says [B]the people[/B]. The Founding Fathers distrusted standing armies and oppressive tyrannical governments, and believed that [B]the people [/B]had the right to be armed for their own defense and the defense of the State. [B]The people [/B]were (and still are) the militia. The Constitution is full of checks and balances. One of the most important of those checks and balances....is an armed populace. [/QUOTE]
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